|
By: Gigi Suhanic
You Ask, We Answer
Financial Post
June 22, 2002
Question: My wife
and I are purchasing a piece of rural property
on which to build a new residence. The seller,
a retired farmer, has owned the property since
the mid-1950s, and from 1964 until 1977, he severed
and sold five lots to friends and one to a family
member. There have been no severances since 1977.
Does GST apply on the sale of this property? CCRA
says it "likely does" as the land was
severed into more than two parcels. Our accountant
says GST will not apply, as the severances occurred
before the GST existed, and the seller is not
in the business of buying and selling land. What
should be our argument when we request a written
ruling from CCRA?
Answer: There is
no simple answer on whether GST applies to farmland,
says Adrian Mastracci
of Vancouver-based KCM Wealth
Management. Generally, the sale of vacant
land is subject to GST. However, the sale may
be exempt when an individual sells land not used
for business purposes.
The sale of land that has been severed or subdivided into more
than two parts is taxable, unless the purchaser is a relative or
former spouse and is buying the land for personal use. Special rules
apply if the land was previously subdivided or severed because of
expropriation.
Special rules also apply to sales of farmland.
Some of the considerations of whether GST applies to farmland are
whether the seller lived on the property and what sort of commercial
undertaking, if any, was conducted on the property by the seller.
"My counsel to the purchaser, especially as the purchaser
does not appear to be a GST registrant, is to stay out of the GST
debate by placing the onus for any liability on the seller. After
all, the seller and his advisors would have the background information,"
Mr. Mastracci says.
The purchaser may wish to structure an agreement with the seller
whereby the price is exclusive of GST. Further, if any GST is payable,
then it would be the responsibility of the seller. Professional
counsel would be beneficial.
Question: What
is the correct interpretation of the tax regulations
regarding the treatment of accrued interest paid
on buying bonds, especially for bonds purchased
near the end of the year which do not have any
taxable interest for that particular year?
Answer: "The
purchaser of a bond may deduct the accrued interest
paid to the extent that the interest is actually
received by the investor in that year," says
a vice-president of taxation and estate planning.
For example, accrued interest paid on a bond purchased on Dec.
15, 2001, that pays interest semi-annually on March 1 and Sept.
1, would only be deductible in the following year, (i.e. Dec. 31,
2002) as you would not receive your first interest payment until
March 1, 2002.
Note, however, that this rule is often ignored with accrued interest
paid being deducted in the year paid, regardless of whether income
from that bond has been received that year.
Adrian Mastracci, fee-only investment counsel at
KCM Wealth Management, says, “My counsel to the purchaser,
especially as the purchaser does not appear to be a GST registrant,
is to stay out of the GST debate by placing the onus for any liability
on the seller.”
Question: I have
a stock that is no longer trading. What paperwork
is required to satisfy Revenue Canada when I choose
to claim the capital loss?
Answer: "I would
simply complete the Schedule 3 of the personal
tax return showing the proceeds from disposal
as zero," says a financial planner.
Obviously, the subtraction of the original cost will then give
a loss. Paperwork required would be the original trade ticket(s)
showing the purchase and probably a statement from the broker showing
the market value of the stock to be nil.
You might also have to prove that the stock no longer trades by
requesting a letter from the broker stating that, although CCRA
should have a listing of such stocks somewhere in its vast data
bases.
"If it's Bre-X, it would be public knowledge that the stock
no longer trades!"
|